#1
Posted: 10/26/05 at 11:17pm
This is something I've always wondered, don't know why I all of a sudden thought to ask just now. I did a search and found every Lippa vs. LaChiusa thread that's existed, and my question wasn't addressed, so...
I'm aware that there are two different versions, but my question is: how did this come to pass? How is it that two different composers decided to write two different musicals about the same story? I mean, I guess it's possible, but you don't hear about that happening too often. Has it in fact happened more than once?
I'm not familiar with copyright/legal stuff, but how is it that they were both allowed to happen? Is it up to the original author of the story to determine how many different adaptations can be made? I forget which one came out first, but was there any conflict or trouble when the second one emerged?
From a non-legal standpoint, how was this occurrence received within the theater community at the time? I mean, wouldn't people likely scoff at someone who wanted to "re-musicalize" a story that's already been made into a musical? I'm not too familiar with the plot, I've only heard some songs, but is it the type of story where you wouldn't be surprised if you heard there were many different adaptations?
Sorry for all the questions, but I figured I had the best shot of getting them all answered in one place if I posted here, rather than doing all the research on my own (I'm lazy, I admit...) And in my defense, any time I tried searching only brought up explanations of the differences between the two, rather than an explanation as to why there are two in the first place. Not just on here, but on other boards, Google, etc...
I'm aware that there are two different versions, but my question is: how did this come to pass? How is it that two different composers decided to write two different musicals about the same story? I mean, I guess it's possible, but you don't hear about that happening too often. Has it in fact happened more than once?
I'm not familiar with copyright/legal stuff, but how is it that they were both allowed to happen? Is it up to the original author of the story to determine how many different adaptations can be made? I forget which one came out first, but was there any conflict or trouble when the second one emerged?
From a non-legal standpoint, how was this occurrence received within the theater community at the time? I mean, wouldn't people likely scoff at someone who wanted to "re-musicalize" a story that's already been made into a musical? I'm not too familiar with the plot, I've only heard some songs, but is it the type of story where you wouldn't be surprised if you heard there were many different adaptations?
Sorry for all the questions, but I figured I had the best shot of getting them all answered in one place if I posted here, rather than doing all the research on my own (I'm lazy, I admit...) And in my defense, any time I tried searching only brought up explanations of the differences between the two, rather than an explanation as to why there are two in the first place. Not just on here, but on other boards, Google, etc...
If I lay here
If I just lay here
Would you lie with me and just forget the world?
If I just lay here
Would you lie with me and just forget the world?