Posted: 4/14/16 at 1:41am
The Finding Neverland example confuses me because all the songs were not only new but by different composers. Now I'm curious, at what point would a show be considered an actual different show?
Posted: 4/14/16 at 5:53am
It wouldn't matter because it wasn't produced here in any guise. It was still considered original.
Posted: 4/14/16 at 11:48am
The 2012 Leicester production was more of a developmental production anyways, so that was why it was never a question.
Posted: 4/14/16 at 12:02pm
I'm always surprised this question is asked every season when the precedent is very strong for things like this.
Is the show a recognizable and established part of the American theatrical canon?
If no: it will most likely be considered "new"- regardless of non-Broadway productions in the recent past (see: Fun Home, Finding Neverland)
If yes: it will most likely be considered a revival- regardless of any changes made to the text. (see: Hedwig & the Angry Inch, Cinderella)
Posted: 4/14/16 at 2:44pm
asmith0307 said: "The 2012 Leicester production was more of a developmental production anyways, so that was why it was never a question.
"
Makes no difference: it still wasn't produced here. Matilda was "new" here as was nearly every other British import.
Posted: 4/14/16 at 8:42pm
Oh completely true. I was merely saying that for those focused on the thought that there was already a production. It's like saying Allegiance should have been a revival since there had been productions for a few years, or as someone said with The Visit. Leicester isn't exactly a big city anyways.
