Posted: 5/3/15 at 12:03pm
Would any posters mind helping me to better understand this song? I feel as though it 'should' have more of an impact on me than it does, but I keep involuntarily getting distracted by wondering about the dramatic logic behind it. In short, it seems to me that after Rutledge sings this song everybody in Congress should be even more convinced to include the anti-slavery mention in the declaration - the opposite of Rutledge's stated intention.
What's Rutledge's motivation in this song? I've read the 1776 libretto, heard the cast recording and seen the movie, however the musical basically taught me everything I 'know' about this part of US history, so I'm relying on the show alone for this, not on historical knowledge. Rutledge wants slavery to continue, so why is he describing it in a way that somewhat acknowledges how awful it is? Is he just trying to cause a commotion to bring the independence debate to a halt? If so, aren't there ways less counterproductive to his pro-slavery stance? And isn't he basically okay with independence if slavery is unaffected anyway? On the other hand, is he trying to say that the north relies economically on slavery to the point that any steps towards outlawing it wouldn't be practical for them either? If so, why isn't he speaking about it in 'civilised' terms and sidestepping the reality? I'm assuming we aren't meant to think he's an utter fool who would make a verbal jab at the north's hypocrisy at the expense of furthering his own interests in Congress regarding slavery or independence. (Or are we?)